HOW TO PREPARE & CRACK AFCAT 2015 EXAM:TIPS TRICKS STRATEGIES PREPARATION STUDY PLAN STUDY MATERIAL BOOKS PAPER PATTERN SYLLABUS QUESTION PAPERS COACHING FOR AFCAT 2015 EXAM

Selection Process

Candidates applied for AFCAT will have to go through the selection procedure as follows:
For Technical Branch: Candidates will be called for Air Force Common Admission Test (AFCAT) and Engineering Knowledge Test (EKT). The AFCAT will be of two hours duration and will contain multiple choice questions on verbal ability, numerical ability, reasoning, general awareness and military aptitude. Selected candidates will have to under go further testing of two stages.
Stage-I: consists of Intelligence Test along with other tests, document check.
Stage-II: consists of Psychological test, Group Tests and Interview.
For Flying Branch: Candidates have to go through Air Force Common Admission Test (AFCAT) and Engineering Knowledge Test (EKT). The AFCAT will be of two hours duration and will contain multiple choice questions on verbal ability, numerical ability, reasoning, general awareness and military aptitude. Intelligence Test, Psychological test along with other tests, document check, Group Tests interview & CPSS (Computerised Pilot Selection System) and or PABT would be administered to eligible candidates.
For Ground Duty Branch: Candidates have to go through Air Force Common Admission Test (AFCAT) and Engineering Knowledge Test (EKT). The AFCAT will be of two hours duration and will contain multiple choice questions on verbal ability, numerical ability, reasoning, general awareness and military aptitude. Intelligence Test, Psychological test along with other tests, document check, Group Tests, interview.

 PAPER PATTERN
The AFCAT will be of two hours duration and will contain multiple choice questions on verbal ability, numerical ability, reasoning general awareness and military aptitude
EKT would be for 45 minutes and conducted immediately after AFCAT

AFCAT written exam consists of General Knowledge, Math, English and Reasoning. Maximum marks will be 300. Total 100 questions will be asked and time allowed for the exam is 2 hours. Every question carry 3 marks and there is 1/3 negative marking. For every wrong answer given by the aspirant, 1 mark will be deducted as panelty. No marks will be deducted if the question is left unanswered.
Those candidates who apply for technnical branch, will have to attend EKT exam which is conducted just after AFCAT.
It is mandatory for candidates applying for technical branch. It consist of 50 questions with one mark for every correct answer.

AFCAT 2015 paper has of four sections:
  1. General Awareness
  2. Verbal Ability
  3. Numerical Ability
  4. Reasoning & Military Aptitude Test
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Following is the syllabus for AFCAT 2015 Syllabus:- 

General Awareness:
  • History
  • Sports
  • Geography
  • Environment
  • Civics
  • Basic Science
  • Defence
  • Art
  • Culture
  • Current Affairs
  • Politics 
Verbal Ability in English:
  • Comprehension
  • Error Detection
  • Sentence Completion
  • Synonyms
  • Antonyms 
  • Testing of Vocabulary
Numerical Ability:
  • Decimal Fraction, 
  • Simplification
  • Average
  • Profit & loss
  • Percentage
  • Ratio & Proportion
  • Simple interest
Reasoning and Military Aptitude Test:
  • Verbal Skills
  • Spatial Ability
- See more at: http://www.eduvidya.com/Entrance-Exam/AFCAT#sthash.yJNLH0cD.dpuf
THE NAME OF SOME IMPORTANT BOOKS ARE AS FOLLOWS :

Buy AFCAT EXAM GUIDE

Buy AFCAT Air Force Common Admission Test Practice Work Book

Buy AFCAT  PRACTICE

Buy The New AFCAT Guide : 6 Past Papers








AFCAT Syllabus 2015


  1. General Awareness: History, Sports, Geography, Environment, Culture, Current Affairs, Politics , Civics, Basic Sciences, Defence, Art etc.
THE NAME OF SOME IMPORTANT BOOKS ARE AS FOLLOWS :

Buy Encyclopaedia Of General Knowledge

Buy Lucent GK

Buy General Knowledge 2015 

  1. Verbal Ability in English: Comprehension, Error Detection, Synonyms, Antonyms, and Testing of Vocabulary, Sentence Completion etc.
THE NAME OF SOME IMPORTANT BOOKS ARE AS FOLLOWS :

Buy Objective English

Buy Objective English for Competitive Examinations


Buy OBJECTIVE GENERAL ENGLISH


  1. Numerical Ability: Decimal Fraction, Simplification, Average, Percentage, Ratio & Proportion, and Simple Interest, Profit & Loss
THE NAME OF SOME IMPORTANT BOOKS ARE AS FOLLOWS :









  1. Reasoning and Military Aptitude Test section: Verbal Skills and Spatial Ability.

Engineering Knowledge Test (EKT)

Engineering Knowledge Test (EKT) is a test for the engineering graduates those who apply for the Technical Branches in the Indian Air Force (IAF). Engineering Knowledge Test is a test carried out by Indian Air Force, along with the AFCAT exam to test the basic knowledge of engineering graduates applying for Technical Entries through AFCAT.
EKT Paper Pattern
EKT exam paper is divided into two Parts with objective type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs).
  • Part A: General Engineering
  • Part B: Specialist Paper for each engineering field
EKT Syllabus
EKT exam comprises of following fields or subjects
General Engineering
  • Modern Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Mathematics
  • Computers
  • Electrical
  • Electronics
  • Mechanical Engineering
THE NAME OF SOME IMPORTANT BOOKS ARE AS FOLLOWS 

Computer and Electronics
  • Digital Electronic Circuits
  • Analog Electronic Circuits
  • Computer Organization and Architecture
  • Operating System
  • Programming and Data Structures
  • Databases
  • Computer Networks
  • Information Systems and Software Engineering
THE NAME OF SOME IMPORTANT BOOKS ARE AS FOLLOWS :
  • Strength of Materials
  • Theory of Machines
  • Vibrations
  • Fluid Mechanics
  • Heat Transfer
THE NAME OF SOME IMPORTANT BOOKS ARE AS FOLLOWS :

Buy Engineering Mechanics Statics and Dynamics

Buy Strength Of Materials

Buy Theory of Machines

Buy Mechanical Vibrations

Buy Hydraulics and Fluid Mechanics Including Hydraulics Machines

Buy Heat and Mass Transfer


Electronics and Communication Engineering
  • Networks
  • Electronic Devices
  • Analog Circuits
  • Digital circuits
  • Signals and Systems
  • Control Systems
  • Communications
  • Electromagnetics
THE NAME OF SOME IMPORTANT BOOKS ARE AS FOLLOWS :

Buy NETWORK ANALYSIS

Buy Electronic Devices And Circuits Theory

Buy Analog Circuits


Buy Fundamentals of Digital Circuits

Buy SIGNALS

Buy Control Systems Engineering

Buy Engineering Electromagnetics

Pattern of Questions:

For Verbal Section:
1. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
2. In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there is no mistake, the answer is (d) “No error”.
i) He charged me (a) / one hundred rupees for five dozens (b)/ oranges of average quality (c)/ No Error (d).
ii)Raju and his friend (a) / were going to see a picture (b)/ when they met his common friend (c)/ No error (d).

For General Awareness:
1. Name the first person who went in the space.
a) Yuri Gagarin                              b) Neil Armstrong
c) Rakesh Sharma                              d)John Glann
2. The first Indian woman who won a medal in Olympic.
a) PT Usha                                           b) Shiny Abraham
c) Dala Banerjee                                  d)Karram Malleswari


For Numerical Ability:
1. When simplified (2.43 *2.43+2.43*7.57*2+7.57*7.57) is equal to –
a) 10                        b) 100                    c) 101.89                d) 200.59
2. Three years ago the average age of A & B was 18 years. With C Joining them now, the average age becomes 22 years. How old is she?
a) 24 years               b) 27 years                      c) 28 years              d) 30 years


For Reasoning Ability:
Analogy
In the following questions there is a pair of capitalized words followed by four choices marked A, B, C, D. Chose the pair of words whose relationship is most similar to that expressed by the capitalized pair, and mark your choice on the answer sheet.
1. COLD: HOT
a) handsome: young                         b) beautiful: ugly
c) summer: spring                             e) complete: total


TECHNICAL BRANCH

Part A: General Engineering

1. The probability of hitting a target from one gun 9/10, from another gun is 7/10. If both gun are fired at the same time, the probability of hitting the target is
(A) 2/20 (B) 63/100
(C) 16/20 (D) 63/20
2. If the three vectors a, b and c are coplanar , then the missed product a x b. c is
(A) Zero (B) Non-Zero
(C) Unity (D) Non of these
6. When a body hits an obstacle, the force with which it hits the obstacle depends upon its
(A) average velocity
(B) velocity at the instant of collision
(C) initial velocity
(D) all of these
7. The wavelength of visible light is of the order of
(A) 1μm (B) 100 μm
(C) 1mm (D) 1 Å
8. Whenever a source of sound moves towards an observer
(A) the frequency heard by the observer is less than that of the source
(B) the frequency heard by the observer is greater than that of the source
(C) the frequency heard by the observer is unchanged
(D) the wavelength of sound heard is greater than that of the sound emitted
9. Moving electric charges will interact with
(A) electric field only
(B) magnetic field only
(C) both of these
(D) none of these
10. Gamma radiation is most similar to
(A) sound waves (B) X-ray
(C) Alpha particles (D) neutrons
11. The fundamental particle responsible for keeping the nucleus together is
(A) meson (B) anti proton
(C) positron (D) muon
12. Air contains 21% oxygen by volume and the rest nitrogen. If the barometer pressure is 740 mm of Hg the partial pressure of oxygen is close to
(A) 155 mm of Hg
(B) 310 mm of Hg
(C) 465 mm of Hg
(D) 162 mm of Hg
13. In the electrolytic cell
(A) electrical energy is converted into chemical energy
(B) chemical energy is converted into electrical energy
(C) mechanical energy is converted into potential energy
(D) potential energy is converted into kinetic energy
14. The force required to maintain a body at constant speed in free space is equal to
(A) the mass of the body
(B) zero
(C) the weight of the body
(D) the force required to stop it
15. If the length of a spring is halved, the spring constant becomes
(A) half (B) 1/4th
(C) double (D) four times
16. The coefficient of static friction depends on
(A) the material of the bodies in contact
(B) the quality of surface finish of the bodies
(C) the presence of foreign matter between the surface
(D) all of these
17. The units of angular impulse in SI system are
(A) Nms (B) Ns
(C) Nm/s (D) Ns/m
19. Stainless steel contains iron and
(A) Chromium and nickel
(B) Chromium and carbon
(C) Nickel and carbon
(D) Chromium and manganese
20. The property of material by which it offers resistance to scratching or indentation is called
(A) Brittleness
(B) Hardness
(C) Toughness
(D) Resilience
21. The failure of a material due to repeated stressing is known as
(A) Creep
(B) Fracture
(C) Fatigue
(D) Brittle Fracture
22. The electric device which blocks DC but allows AC is called
(A) Capacitor
(B) Inductor
(C) Amplifier
(D) Transducer
23. When a charge is moved from one point to another in an electric field, the work done is
(A) independent of the path
(B) zero along the direction of the field
(C) measured in Joules per metre
(D) measure in Volt per metre
24. A capacitor with lowest leakage is
(A) Paper (B) Ceramic
(C) Polyester (D) Mica
25. A zener diode operates
(A) In an extremely high forward bias
(B) In an extremely low reverse bias
(C) In an extremely low forward bias
(D) In a reverse bias higher than laid down voltage
26. The specific gravity of a lead acid cell is often used as a measure of its
(A) Rate of discharge
(B) Operating temperature
(C) State of charge
(D) Life expectancy
27. An uniformly distributed load is one which
(A) Acts at a point on a beam
(B) Spreads uniformly over the whole length of a beam
(C) Varies uniformly over the whole length of a beam
(D) loads the beam from one end only
28. A steam engine device which keeps the speed of the engine, all loads, constant is known as
(A) Flywheel
(B) Eccentric
(C) Connecting rod
(D) Governor
29. The refrigerant hiving the lowest freezing point is
(A) Ammonia
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Freon – 11
(D) Freon – 22
30. Heat and work are
(A) Path functions
(B) Properties of a substance
(C) Point functions
(D) Absolute units

PART B-1 AE (M): MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

1. An impulse turbine
(A) Makes use of a draft tube
(B) Always operates submerged
(C) Converts the pressure head into velocity head through the vanes
(D) Is most suited for low head installations
2. Power required to drive a centrifugal pump is directly proportional to
(A) Diameter of its impeller
(B) Square of diameter of its impeller
(C) Cube of diameter of its impeller
(D) Fourth power of diameter of its impeller
3. The locus of the common point on the two meshing spur gears is known as
(A) Addendum circle
(B) Duodenum circle
(C) Pitch circle
(D) Base circle
4. When there is a reduction in amplitude over every cycle of vibration then the body is said to have
(A) Free vibration
(B) Forced vibration
(C) Damped vibration
(D) Natural vibration
5. For machining at high speed the tool material should have
(A) Wear resistance
(B) Red hardness
(C) Toughness
(D) All of these
6. MIG welding is
(A) A gas welding process
(B) An electric resistance welding process
(C) A electric resistance welding process
(D) A forge welding process involving high temperatures and low pressures
7. The ability of sand to permit the metal to shrink when it solidifies is known is
(A) Plasticity (B) Permeability
(C) Collapsibility (D) Cohesiveness
8. Rivets are generally specified by
(A) Overall length
(B) Shank diameter
(C) Thickness of plates to be jointed
(D) Diameter of head
9. Which of the following is steady flow compressor
(A) Reciprocating compressor
(B) Centrifugal compressor
(C) Voot blower
(D) Vane blower
10. A closed cycle gas turbine works on
(A) Carnot cycle (B) Rankine cycle
(C) Brayton cycle (D) Joule cycle
11. Thermal conductivity of solid metals
(A) Decreases with rise in temperature
(B) Does not vary with temperature
(C) Increases with rise in temperature
(D) Remains constant with rise in temperature
12. During adiabatic saturation process, air property which remains constant, is known as
(A) Wet bulb temperature
(B) Dry bulb temperature
(C) Relative humidity
(D) Specific humidity
13. Bell-Coleman cycle as applied to refrigeration operates
(A) On open air system
(B) On vapour compression system
(C) On vapour absorption system
(D) On none of these
14. The gears in which axes of the shaft connected by them, intersect, are known as
(A) Spur gears (B) Bevel gears
(C) Spiral gears (D) Gear train
15. Shot peening
(A) Is done at re-crystallization temperature
(B) Changes the crystalline structure at materials
(C) Improves the fatigue life of small parts
(D) Refines the grain structure
16. In a bomb calorimeter the heat released by the fuel is absorbed by
(A) Atmospheric air
(B) Water
(C) Metal container
(D) Bomb, water and metal container
17. Nitriding is done
(A) On low carbon steels only
(B) To impart blue colour to steels
(C) To improve machinability
(D) To increase surface hardness
18. The extent of cold work that a metal can withstand depends on
(A) Purity of metal
(B) Carbon percentage
(C) Ductility
(D) Room temperature
19. Which engine has the highest air fuel ratio
(A) Petrol engine (B) Gas engine
(C) Diesel engine (D) Gas turbine
20. Annealing of steels is done to
(A) Remove internal stresses
(B) Produce soft core under hard surface
(C) Produce hard core under soft surface
(D) Introduce capacity to withstand shocks

PART B-2 AE (M): AERONAUTICAL ENGINEERING

1. What mass of lead (sp gr = 11) will weigh as much as 8 gram of iron (Sp gr = 8) when both are immersed in water
(A) 7.7 gram (B) 8.8 gram
(C) 10.0 gram (D) 1.1 gram
2. Which of the two forces are important in floating bodies
(A) inertial, pressure
(B) buoyancy, gravity
(C) gravity, inertial
(D) pressure, viscous
3. A dimensionless number which is a ratio of kinematics viscosity to thermal diffusivity is known as
(A) Prandtl Number
(B) Nusselt Number
(C) Reynold’s Number
(D) Stanton Number
4. Ozone is an
(A) isomer of oxygen
(B) allotrope of oxygen
(C) isobar of oxygen
(D) isotope of oxygen
5. Within a carburetor the velocity of air is maximum at
(A) inlet
(B) outlet
(C) venture
(D) does not change within a carburetor
6. A 50 Kg mass is accelerated from rest to 50 m/s. The force on it is
(A) 500 N
(B) 2,500 N
(C) 512 N
(D) Can not be determined from the given data
7. In vacuum the velocity of light depends on
(A) none of the following
(B) frequency
(C) temperature
(D) pressure
8. The source of solar energy is
(A) nuclear fission / fusion
(B) electromagnetic radiation
(C) chemical energy
(D) burning of hydrogen
9. The pressure of a real gas is less than the pressure of an ideal gas because of
(A) increase in the number of intermolecular collisions
(B) higher energy possessed by the molecules than the theoretical estimates
(C) inter-molecular forces
(D) finite size of molecules
10. Which of the following is dimensionless
(A) young’s modulus of elasticity
(B) stress (C) strain
(D) shear stress
11. Which of the following relations is incorrect One atmospheric pressure is nearly equal to
(A) 1013 bar
(B) 1013250 dynes/cm2
(C) 1.033kgf/cm2
(D) 735 mm of Hg
12. Which of the following is a scalar quantity
(A) velocity of a gear
(B) acceleration of a car
(C) force in friction
(D) area of a triangle
13. The Mach number at inlet of a gas turbine diffuser is 0.3. The shape of the diffuser would be
(A) converging (B) diverging
(C) diverging – converging
(D) converging – diverging
14. For adiabatic expansion with friction through a nozzle, the following remains constant
(A) entropy (B) static enthalpy
(C) stagnation enthalpy
(D) stagnation pressure
15. Separation of flow is caused by
(A) reduction of pressure in the direction flow
(B) decrease in the boundary layer thickness
(C) increase of pressure in the direction of flow
(D) adverse pressure gradient
16. A pilot tube senses
(A) stagnation pressure
(B) average pressure
(C) maximum pressure
(D) velocity head pressure
17. Which of the following materials has the higher value of Poisson’ ratio
(A) rubber (B) copper
(C) steel (D) concrete
18. During forced vertex flow
(A) velocity increases with radius
(B) velocity decreases with radius
(C) fluid rotates as a composite solid
(D) inertial forces are significant
19. Hooke’s law is valid within the limits of proportionality. The limit of proportionality depends on
(A) type of loading
(B) area of cross section
(C) type of material
(D) hardness of material
20. Euler’s equation of fluid motion can be integrated when it is assumed that
(A) the fluid is incompressible
(B) Bernoulli’s equation is satisfied
(C) flow is rotational
(D) velocity potential exits and the density is constant

PART B-3 AE (L): ELECTRICAL, ELECTRONICS AND INSTRUMENTATION

1. In order for a 30 volt, 90 watt lamp to work properly in a 120 volt supply the required series resister in ohm is
(A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 30 (D) 40
2. According to Theremin’s theorem, any linear active network can be replaced by a single voltage source
(A) in series with a single impedance
(B) in parallel with a single impedance
(C) in series with two impedances
(D) in parallel with two impedances
3. The internal resistance of ammeter is
(A) very small (B) very high
(C) infinite (D) zero
4. Hay bridge is used mainly for the measurement of
(A) resistance (B) inductance
(C) conductance (D) capacitance
5. Which of the following is true about series resonance
(A) The reactance becomes zero and impedance becomes equal to resistance
(B) The current in the circuit becomes maximum
(C) The voltage drop across inductance and capacitance cancels each other
(D) All of the above statements are correct
6. A 3-Ф, 4 wire, 400/230 v feeder supplies 3-phase motor and an unbalanced lighting load. In this system
(A) all four wires will carry equal current
(B) neutral wire will carry no current
(C) neutral wire will carry both motor current and lighting load current
(D) neutral wire will carry current only when lighting load is switched on
7. Equalizing connections are required when paralleling two
(A) alternators
(B) compound generators
(C) series generators
(D) both (B) and (C)
8. An ideal transformer is one which
(A) has a common core for its primary and secondary windings
(B) has no losses and magnetic leakage
(C) has core of stainless steel and windings of pure copper metal
(D) has interleaved primary and secondary windings
9. The principle of operation of a 3-phase induction motor is most similar to that of a
(A) synchronous motor
(B) repulsion-start induction motor
(C) transformer with a shorted secondary
(D) capacitor-start, induction-run motor
10. In the forward region of its characteristic, a diode appears as
(A) an OFF switch
(B) a high resistance
(C) a capacitor
(D) an ON switch
11. The common-emitter forward amplification factor βdc is given by
(A) IC/IE (B) IC/Ib
(C) IE/IC (D) IB/IF
12. A common emitter amplifier is characterized by
(A) low voltage gain
(B) moderate power gain
(C) signal phase reversal
(D) very high output impedance
13. After VDS reaches pinch-off value VP in a JFET, drain current IO becomes
(A) zero (B) low
(C) saturated (D) reversed
14. An electronic oscillator
(A) needs an external input
(B) provides its own input
(C) is nothing but an amplifier
(D) is just a dc/ac converter
15. In an SCR, the function of the gate is to
(A) switch it off
(B) control its firing
(C) make it unidirectional
(D) reduce forward breakdown voltage
16. NAND and NOR gates are called ‘universal’ gates primarily because they
(A) are available everywhere
(B) are widely used in IC packages
(C) can be combined to produce AND, OR and NOT gates
(D) are the easiest to manufacture
17. Registers and counters are similar in the sense that they both
(A) count pulses
(B) store binary information
(C) are made from an array of flip-flops and gates integrated on a single chip
(D) are in fact shift register
18. A flip-flop
(A) is a sequential logic device
(B) is a combinational logic device
(C) remembers what was previously stored in it
(D) both (A) and (C)
19. An operational amplifier
(A) can be used to sum two or more signals
(B) can be used to subtract two or more signals
(C) uses to principle of feed back
(D) all of the above
20. TTL logic is preferred to DRL logic because
(A) greater fan-out is possible
(B) greater logic levels are possible
(C) greater fan-in is possible
(D) less power consumption is possible

PART B-4 AE (L): ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATIONS

1. In a communication system, noise is most likely to get into the system
(A) at the transmitter
(B) in the channel
(C) in the information source
(D) at the destination
2. When modulation frequency is doubled, the modulation index is halved, and the modulating voltage remains constant, the modulation system is
(A) amplitude modulation
(B) phase modulation
(C) frequency modulation
(D) angle modulation
3. Impedance inversion may be obtained with
(A) a short – circuited stub
(B) an open – circuited stub
(C) a quarter – wave line
(D) a half – wave line
4. HIGH frequency waves are
(A) observed by the F2 layer
(B) reflected by D layer
(C) capable of use for long-distance communication on the moon
(D) affected by the solar cycle
5. Which one of the following terms does not apply to the Yagi-uda array
(A) Good band width
(B) Parasitic elements
(C) Folded diploe
(D) High gain
6. A duplexer is used
(A) to couple two different antennae to a transmitter without mutual interference
(B) to allow one antenna to be used for reception or transmission without mutual interference
(C) to prevent interference between two antennae when they are connected to receiver
(D) to increase the speed of the pulses in pulsed radar
7. Indicate which of the following system is digital
(A) Pulse – Position modulation
(B) Pulse – Code modulation
(C) Pulse – Width modulation
(D) Pulse – Frequency modulation
8. A forward error correcting code corrects errors only
(A) requiring partial retransmission of the signal
(B) requiring retransmission of entire signal
(C) using parity to correct to errors in all cases
(D) requiring no part of the signal to be transmitted
9. A typical signal strength received from a geosynchronous communication satellite is of the order of
(A) a few milli watts
(B) kilo watts
(C) watts
(D) few pico watts
10. Telephone traffic is measured
(A) with echo cancellers
(B) by the relative congestion
(C) in terms of the grade of service
(D) in erlangs
11. Positive logic in a logic circuit is one in which
(A) logic 0 and 1 are represented by 0 and positive voltage respectively
(B) logic 0 and 1 are represented by negative and positive voltages respectively
(C) logic 0 voltage level in higher than logic 1 voltage level
(D) logic 0 voltage level is lower than logic 1 voltage level
12. A half-adder can be made from
(A) two NAND gates
(B) a NOT gate and an OR gate
(C) an AND gate and an OR gate
(D) an AND gate and an X-OR gate
13. Which of the following devices has its characteristics very close to that of an ideal current source.
(A) Field effect transistor
(B) Transistor in common bas mode
(C) Zener diode
(D) MOSFET
14. The main use of a common base transistor amplifier is
(A) as voltage amplifier
(B) current amplifier
(C) for matching a high source impedance to a low load impedance
(D) for rectification of a.c. signal
15. A class-B amplifier is biased
(A) Just at cut-off
(B) nearly twice cut-off
(C) at mid point of load line
(D) so that IB equals jut IC
16. If the peak transmitted power in a radar system is increased by a factor of 16, the maximum range will be increased by a factor of
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 16
17. A high PRF will (indicate the false statement)
(A) make the returned echoes easier to distinguish from noise
(B) make target tracking easier with conical scanning
(C) increase the maximum range
(D) have no effect of the range resolution
18. A solution to the “blind speed” problem in a radar system is to
(A) change the Doppler frequency
(B) vary the PRF
(C) use mono pulse
(D) use MTI
19. The number of active picture elements in a television image depends on
(A) fly back time
(B) CRT screen size
(C) received band width
(D) FB ratio of receiver antenna
20. In a colour TV, the three primary colours are
(A) red, orange and blue
(B) red, blue and green
(C) red, green and yellow
(D) red, orange and green

PART B-5 AE (L): COMPUTER ENGINEERING

1. A logic gate is an electronic circuit which
(A) makes logic decision
(B) allows electron flow only in one direction
(C) works on binary algebra
(D) alternates between 0 and 1 values
2. NAND and NOR gates are called ‘universal’ gates primarily because they
(A) are available everywhere
(B) are widely used in IC packages
(C) can be combined to produce AND, OR and NOT gates
(D) are the easiest to manufacture
3. The ascending order of a data hierarchy is:
(A) bit-byte-record-field-file-data base
(B) byte-bit-field-record-file
(C) byte-bit-record-field-file-data base
(D) bit-byte-field-record -file-data base
4. A dumb terminal can do nothing more than communicate data to and from a CPU of a computer. How does a ‘smart’ terminal differ from dumb terminal
(A) it has a primary memory
(B) it has a cache memory
(C) it has a micro processor
(D) it has an input device
5. The main distinguishing features of fifth generation digital computer will be
(A) liberal use of micro processors
(B) artificial intelligence
(C) extremely low cost
(D) versatility
6. Which of the following terms is not used to refer to the recording density of a disk
(A) mega-density (B) single-density
(C) double-density (D) quad-density
7. The two kinds of main memory are
(A) primary and secondary
(B) random and sequential
(C) ROM and RAM
(D) central and peripheral
8. Which one of the following is not an octal number
(A) 29 (B) 75 (C) 16 (D) 102
9. Main problem with LCDs is that they are very difficult to read
(A) directly
(B) in bright light
(C) in dull light
(D) both (B) and (C)
10. Both computer instructions and memory addresses are represented by
(A) character codes
(B) binary codes
(C) binary word
(D) parity bit
11. A computer program that converts an entire program into machine language at one time is called a/an
(A) interpreter (B) simulator
(C) compiler (D) commander
12. All the keys on the IBM PC key board repeat as long as we hold them down. Such type of keys are known as
(A) typematic keys
(B) functional keys
(C) automatic keys
(D) alphabetic keys
13. What does the acronym ISDN stands for
(A) Indian Standard Digital Network
(B) Integrated Services Digital Network
(C) Intelligent Service Digital Network
(D) Integrated Services Data Network
14. Two basic types of operating system are
(A) sequential and direct
(B) batch and time sharing
(C) direct and interactive
(D) batch and interactive
15. Which of the following entity does not belong to word processing
(A) characters (B) words
(C) cells (D) paragraphs
16. A schema describes
(A) data elements
(B) records and filer
(C) record relationship
(D) all of the above
17. Which of the following is not a tool used to manage and control schedule performance
(A) CAD (B) PERT
(C) CPM (D) Gantt Chart
18. An expert system differs from a data base program in that only an expert system
(A) contains declarative knowledge
(B) contains procedural knowledge
(C) features the retrieval of stored information
(D) experts users to draw own conclusion
19. The virtual memory addressing capability of 80386 is
(A) 4 GB (B) 16 GB
(C) 64 GB (D) 64 TB
20. The 80486 microprocessor from Intel consists of
(A) a fast 32 bit CPU but no coprocessor
(B) a 32 bit CPU and an 80387 coprocessor only
(C) a 32 bit CPU, a 80387 coprocessor and memory management unit (MMU) only
(D) a 32 bit CPU, a 80387 coprocessor, memory management unit and a cache me

TIPS TO CLEAR AFCAT EXAM 2015
  1.  Always start will the easiest section, if you think you can do better in mathematics section, always start with mathematics, this will not only increase the efficieny but will also fetch you more marks in other sections beacause after solving your favourite section, you will feel more confident and perform better.
  2.  Avoid attempting questions which you are not sure about, AFCAT has negative marking scheme so you will lose 3 marks if you attempt three question wrong. 3 marks here are equal to one correct question. So in short three wrong answers will make you lose one correct answer.
  3.  Utilize the rough paper provided by IAF to solve your maths or spatial abitlity part. Even if you are sure about the answer, double check your answer by solving it on a rough paper.
  4.  Spatial ability is also one of the easy sections in AFCAT exam, 80-90% candidates can get more marks in spaitial abilty and military appititude sections of afcat exam. Only thing you need is to know what kind of questions you will face in spatial ability and mental ability sections of afcat exam.
  5.  Last year many candidates did wrong marking on their OMR sheet due to which their OMR sheet was marked as invalid and wasn’t considered for AFCAT exams. So make sure you are thinking twice before filling any data or marking anything on OMR sheet. Nevertheless you will find the officials over there and you can clarify anything which is confusing.
  6.  Start your afcat exam preparation which different sources like AFCAT exam books, AFCAT classroom coaching . At least 1 month prior preparation is required to crack the afcat exam. But candidates who are confident about their potential can prepare for afcat exam in just a week and clear it with very good marks.
  7.  Be on time, reach your afcat centre well before the time mentioned on your afcat exam admit card, there are many candidates who have missed their afcat exam just because they were late to the examination centre. Indian air force is very strict regarding this issue so make sure you know your afcat exam location well before the exam and reach there on time.
  8.  As per the trend and afcat exam cut off, it is good to attempt atleast 50 questions correctly without any negative marking. 50 correct questions will fetch you 150 marks which is more than enough to crack afcat exam.
  9.   Candidates who are applying for technical exams have to face EKT exam along with the afcat exam. If you fail in EKT exam though you have cleared the afcat exam, you won’t be eligible for technical branch in AFSB interview. Candidates who are only eligible for technical branch have to clear EKT exam along with afcat exam else they wont be able to clear for AFSB interview.
  10.   To prepare best for EKT exam, refer to previous EKT question papers and books which has basic questions answers related to your respective branch. If suppose your want to prepare for Electrical and Electronics, you could refer to a good engineering book which covers the basic concepts of electrical and electronics.



AFCAT PREVIOUS YEAR PAPERS ARE AVAILABLE AT THIS LINK

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Following is the syllabus for AFCAT 2015 Syllabus:- 

General Awareness:
  • History
  • Sports
  • Geography
  • Environment
  • Civics
  • Basic Science
  • Defence
  • Art
  • Culture
  • Current Affairs
  • Politics 
Verbal Ability in English:
  • Comprehension
  • Error Detection
  • Sentence Completion
  • Synonyms
  • Antonyms 
  • Testing of Vocabulary
Numerical Ability:
  • Decimal Fraction, 
  • Simplification
  • Average
  • Profit & loss
  • Percentage
  • Ratio & Proportion
  • Simple interest
Reasoning and Military Aptitude Test:
  • Verbal Skills
  • Spatial Ability
- See more at: http://www.eduvidya.com/Entrance-Exam/AFCAT#sthash.yJNLH0cD.dpuf
Following is the syllabus for AFCAT 2015 Syllabus:- 

General Awareness:
  • History
  • Sports
  • Geography
  • Environment
  • Civics
  • Basic Science
  • Defence
  • Art
  • Culture
  • Current Affairs
  • Politics 
Verbal Ability in English:
  • Comprehension
  • Error Detection
  • Sentence Completion
  • Synonyms
  • Antonyms 
  • Testing of Vocabulary
Numerical Ability:
  • Decimal Fraction, 
  • Simplification
  • Average
  • Profit & loss
  • Percentage
  • Ratio & Proportion
  • Simple interest
Reasoning and Military Aptitude Test:
  • Verbal Skills
  • Spatial Ability
- See more at: http://www.eduvidya.com/Entrance-Exam/AFCAT#sthash.yJNLH0cD.dpuf
Following is the syllabus for AFCAT 2015 Syllabus:- 

General Awareness:
  • History
  • Sports
  • Geography
  • Environment
  • Civics
  • Basic Science
  • Defence
  • Art
  • Culture
  • Current Affairs
  • Politics 
Verbal Ability in English:
  • Comprehension
  • Error Detection
  • Sentence Completion
  • Synonyms
  • Antonyms 
  • Testing of Vocabulary
Numerical Ability:
  • Decimal Fraction, 
  • Simplification
  • Average
  • Profit & loss
  • Percentage
  • Ratio & Proportion
  • Simple interest
Reasoning and Military Aptitude Test:
  • Verbal Skills
  • Spatial Ability
- See more at: http://www.eduvidya.com/Entrance-Exam/AFCAT#sthash.yJNLH0cD.dpuf

HOW TO PREPARE & CRACK IBPS CWE PO 2015 EXAM:TIPS TRICKS STRATEGIES PREPARATION STUDY PLAN STUDY MATERIAL BOOKS PAPER PATTERN SYLLABUS QUESTION PAPERS COACHING FOR IBPS CWE PO 2015 EXAM

Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) has released notification for conducting the Online examination for the next Common Recruitment Process for selection of personnel for Probationary Officer/ Management Trainee (CWE PO/MT-V) vacancies in the Participating Organisations. Eligible candidates may apply online from 10-07-2015 to 01-08-2015.

Preliminary Examination
  • Prelims Examination Will Be 100 Marks – In Which Reasoning , Quantitative Aptitude And English Section Are included.
  • In Prelim Exam No Questions Will be from General knowledge And Computer Awareness.
  • Tier I will be a easier exam and more number of candidates will be qualified in this stage
  • The marks obtained in the Preliminary examination also not be considered for preparing the final merit list and the marks obtained in the Main Examination will only be considered for short listing for interview.
Mains Examination
  • In Mains Examination Questions Will be asked From Reasoning , English , general Awareness , Quantitative Aptitude, Computer . Mains Examination Will be Of 200 marks
  • Difficulty level in tier II will be high. So, by including both kind of papers, it will be ensured that the candidates, who can handle both kinds of situations are qualified
  • Tier II exam will include bio-metric identification i.e. at the time of entering the exam hall, you will be required to undergo bio-metric identification – i.e. scanning of your thumb impression etc. Same scanning will happen at the time of interview stage and at the time of joining the bank.
The whole process will ensure that only the genuine, deserving and all rounded person gets the selection.


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Selection Process: The IBPS PO/MT selection process will be carried out in three stages, the first one is Preliminary Examination, second stage is Main Examination & third stage is Common Interview conducted by IBPS.


Online Examination Pattern: 


1. The structure of the Examinations which will be conducted online are as follows:

a. Preliminary Examination
Sl No Name of Tests No. of Qs Maximum Marks Duartion
1 English Language 30 30  Composite Time of 1 Hour
Quantitative Aptitude 35  35 
Reasoning Ability  35  35 

Total 100 100 

b. Main Examination
Sl No Name of Tests No. of Qs Maximum Marks Duartion
1 Reasoning 50 50 Composite Time of 2 Hours
2 English Language 40 40
3 Quantitative Aptitude 50 50
4 General Awareness 40 40
5 Computer Knowledge 20 20

Total 200 200
Cutoff Score: Each candidate will be required to obtain a minimum score in each test and also a minimum total score to be considered to be shortlisted for interview. Depending on the number of vacancies available, cutoffs will be decided and candidates will be shortlisted for interview. Prior to the completion of the interview process, scores obtained in the online examination will not be shared with the candidates shortlisted for interview.

There will be Negative Marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer. If a question is left blank, there will be no negative marking for that question. All the tests except the Test of English Language will be available bilingually, i.e. English and Hindi. The corrected scores obtained by each of the candidates in different sessions (if held) will be normalized using equi-percentile method. Scores up to two decimal points shall be taken for the purpose of calculations. Each candidate will be required to obtain a minimum score in each test and also a minimum total score to be considered to be shortlisted for interview.

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IBPS CWE PO TOPICWISE SYLLABUS


  • REASONING
    Reasoning: Total number questions covered under this section are about 50. Reasoning is divided under two sections.
  • Verbal Reasoning
  • Non Verbal Reasoning
Verbal Reasoning:
  • Alphabet test
  • Mathematical Operation test
  • Classification
  • Syllogism
  • Number
  • Ranking and time sequence
  • Causes and effects
  • Coding-decoding
  • Blood relations
  • Analytic reasoning
  • Direction sense test
  • Input output
  • Statement
  • Test Series
  • Analogy
  • Odd one out
  • Sitting arrangement
  • Statement and arguments
  • Statement and action’s courses
  • Assertion and reasoning
  • Passage and conclusions
  • Figure Series
  • Decision making and conclusions
  • Statement and assumptions
  • Word formation.
Non- Verbal Reasoning :
  • Figure series test
  • Analogy
  • Odd figures
 

Topic
Expected Number of Questions
Seating Arrangement
10
Tabulation
5
Logical Reasoning
5-10
Syllogism
5
Blood Relations
5
Input Output
0-5
Coding Decoding
5
Alphanumeric Series
0-5
Ranking/Direction/Alphabet Test
0-5
Data Sufficiency
0-5
Coded Inequalities
5
Puzzle 
5-7


 QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

Quantitative Aptitude & Data Interpretation:
  • Number system
  • HCF & LCM Simplifications
  • Partnerships
  • Percentage
  • Ratio and proportions
  • Average & Ages Ratio & Proportion
  • Number series
  • Problems based on numbers
  • Approximation Wrong Number
  • Decimal fractions
  • Square root and cube root
  • Profit and loss
  • Simple interest and compound interest
  • Data tables
  • Probability
  • Time and work
  • Time and distance
  • Pie charts
  • Bar graphs
  • Line graphs
  • Average
  • Mensuration
  • Permutation and combination
  • Mixed graphs
  • Case study.

 

Topic No. of Questions Expected
HCF & LCM, Number series, Problems based on numbers, Decimal fractions, Square root and cube root, Simplifications 5-7
Number Systems 3
Partnerships, Percentage, Ratio and proportions, Average & Ages Ratio & Proportion 4-6
Profit & Loss 2
Mixtures & Alligations 1-2
Profit & Loss, Simple Interest, Compound Interest, Surds & Indices 1- 2
Work & Time, Pipes & Cisterns 2
Time & Distance 2
Mensuration – Cylinder, Cone, Sphere 1-2
Sequence & Series 5
Permutation, Combination & Probability 3-5
Data Interpretation (Pie charts, Bar graphs, Line graphs, Mixed graphs)



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ENGLISH


  • Spotting the errors
  • Phrase substitution
  • Fill in the blank
  • Idioms & Phrases
  • Choosing the appropriate filler
  • Double blanks in a sentence
  • Ordering of sentences or jumbled up sentences
  • Synonyms & antonyms
  • Reconstruction of sentence & passage
  • Commonly misspelled words
  • One word substitution
  • Vocabulary means homonyms, synonyms, antonyms,sentence completion, word formation.
  • topic comprehension means deriving conclusion, theme detection, passage completion.
  • the topic rearrangement of passage, spelling, sentence and the topic grammar means set of rules active passive voice, indirect direct speech.
  • the topic general usage means phrases and idioms.
  • Grammar
  • Articles
  • Preposition
  • Sentence Improvement
  • Spotting Error Questions
  • One Word Substitution
  • Sentence Completion Etc



Topic
Expected Number of Questions
Reading Comprehension
10
Cloze Test
10
Fill in the blanks
0-5
Multiple Meaning/Error Spotting
0-5
Paragraph Complete/ Sentence Correction
5
Para jumbles
5
Miscellaneous
5






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IMPORTANT BOOKS TO BE REFFERRED

Buy Objective English


Buy Objective English for Competitive Examinations


Buy OBJECTIVE GENERAL ENGLISH





GENERAL & BANKING AWARENESS

  • Indian Financial System – Overview of Financial Markets (Money Market, Capital Market, Forex Market, Credit Market), Financial Intermediaries involved (like investment bankers, underwriters, stock exchanges, registrars, depositories, custodians, portfolio managers, mutual funds, primary dealers, Authorised dealers, self regulatory organizations, etc. Also read important committees and its recommendations.
  • History of Indian Banking Industry - (Pre Independence, Post Independence, Nationalisation), Structure of Indian Banking, Types of Banks (Scheduled, Co-operatives), categorisation of Bank (Pvt, PSU, Foreign), NHB, SIDBI, EXIM, NABARD, IDBI its role etc and concept of NBFC.
  • Regulatory Bodies like – RBI, (RBI History/ Functions/ Roles/) SEBI, IRDA, PFRDA, FSDC, FMC etc its role functions and fact based details
  • Monetary & Credit Policies who decides, basis of change and its relation with Inflation and other related issues & Inflation (Types) CRR/ SLR/ Repo/ Re-Repo/Bank Rate etc.
  • Budget Basics and Current Union Budget – Discussion of Budget related terminologies like GDP, Fiscal Deficit, Various kinds of taxes, Government revenue model and spending etc. and discussion on Union Budget 2014. Also major pointers for Rail Budget and Economic Survey to be read.
  • International Organisations/ Financial Institutions – IMF, World Bank, ADB, UN related agencies, recent development in them members heads etc functions, recent loans given by them to India or any country in the world where Crisis is going on.
  • Capital Market & Money Market – Concept, Types of Instruments they deal in like (1. Call/Notice Money 2. Treasury Bills 3. Term Money, 4. Certificate of Deposit 5. Commercial Papers or Capital Market Instruments like equity Shares, preference shares, or Debt segment like Debentures etc also talk about Stock Exchanges in India and world.
  • Government Schemes – All important schemes for ex. Bharat Nirman, Swavlamban, Swabhiman , All schemes discussed in budget - the details like when was it introduced, important facts related to same, budgetary allocation etc.
  • Abbreviations and Economic terminologies - Frequently discussed in newspaper  
  • Other important concepts like – BASEL, Micro Finance, Base Rate, Negotiable Instruments, Credit Rating Agencies, Financial Inclusions, Teaser Rates, GAAR, Priority Sector Lending and all other important concepts.
  •  
COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE
  • Computer hardware parts and controls
  • Basic computer terminology
  • Basic internet knowledge and protocols
  • Number System
  • History of Computer
  • Network basics (LAN & WAN)
  • Computer abbreviation
  • Security Tools , Virus , Hacking
  • Software names and usages (Microsoft Office)
  • And Computer Shortcut



Module No.
Details
1
Number System
2
History of Computers
3
Hardware
4
Software
5
Database (introduction)
6
Communication (Basic Introduction)
7
Networking (LAN, WAN)
8
Internet (Concept, History, working environment, Application)
9
Security Tools, Virus, Hacker
10
MS Windows & MS Office
11
Logic Gates



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 How to prepare Subject wise:


English Language :

This section is usually Common Errors, jumbled Sentence, jumbled Words, spelling errors, comprehension Test, filling the blanks,  Phrase Meaning, Phrase Replacement like questions from within., approximately 25 to 30 percent of the questions most weight age is possible that in the comprehension. Grammar and Vocabulary standard is Mandatory for English test on this SBI PO Exam. Grammar grip increases by continuous study as it is the main weapon. Speed reading also contributes English success. Should be 200 to 250 words per minute reading speed. In addition, it Main Preference English Descriptive testing. In Descriptive test will comes Letter Writing, Precise writing, essay writing etc so Much Grammar Grip Needed. for this can Concentrate on Sentence formation and Vocabulary .


General Awareness:


This section is intended to judge the level of understanding of the social aspects of the candidates. In addition, General Awareness and Computers section also included. In this context it is updated for changes in the banking sector. RBI policies, the latest credit policies; innovative and banks policies; banks, companies essential Captions must go through. GK In addition to sports - Winners, workshops - places, awards - people, the people in the news to prepare the test of time is required before 6 to 7 months of the exam as its online this time don't forget to go through latest current affair too. Similarly, with regard to the Computer Knowledge- Generations of Computers, Computers History, Fundamentals of MS Office, MS Word, MS Excel, Shortcuts are essential topics.


Test of Reasoning:


The answer depends on the ability of self-reflection that is Section Reasoning. Critical, logical analysis, to identify key words in question need to be eagle-eyed. Series, analogy, Classifications, directions, Blood Relations, alphabetical orders, numbers need to prepare for it. Coding, and decoding, Ranking, Order of arrangement grip on it.
Positions characters in alphabetical order English front to back, back to front learning is Important.

Quantitative Aptitude


Arithmetic elements attain. A keen observation, basic knowledge of mathematics, basic concepts must be needed, finding statement right or wrong etc. Percentage arithmetic section, Geometry, Simple equations preparation needed.
Data Interpretation plays vital role in this section.


Tips for cracking each section

Reasoning:
Reasoning is a test of observing our mental and problem solving ability. Reasoning is not like numerical skill where you learn some formula and solve question by applying that formula.Understand the question before solving it. Don’t take much time for single question.You have to be very careful while answering these questions.Practice similar questions from previous model papers or previous year’s exam papers are the key to do well in this section.The most important questions from this section are on the topics such as Seating Arrangements, Syllogism, Coding-Decoding, Statement and Conclusions, Directions, Blood Relations, Analogy, Classification, Series problems, Missing Characters, Odd Man out, Ranking Test, Data sufficiency, Assumptions and Directions. Non-Verbal is the toughest of all.
Which questions you have to attempt first –
It’s better to attempt first those questions on which you are very confident and you can attempt in a minimum time.Please do not start with Seating Arrangement/ Puzzle type’s questions because once you stuck in these questions, you will lose your valuable time.


Quantitative Aptitude
This section contains the basic mathematical questions. Before exercising such questions, it is better to go through the basic mathematical formulae and learn some short cuts to solve the questions in lesser time. In this section, the questions act as Calculation Instruments. This section is extremely scoring and the right understanding of the problem can help the aspirants to sail through this section. The most important questions from this section are on the topics such as Number Systems, Fractions, Ratio and Proportion, Time & Work, Percentage, Profit & Loss, Problems on Ages,Simple Interest & Compound Interest, Average, Time & Distance, Mensuration, Partnership and Data Interpretation.
Data Analysis and Interpretation contains Pie charts, Bar Diagrams and graphs. It is one of the time consuming concept.So it’s better to do at leastfivequestions of this type a day to speed up your calculations.
Don’t try guesses in this section,Speed up your calculation and Learn Square up to 30 and multiplication tables up to 20 are some key points to score well in this section.

General English:
IBPS PO English exam is tough when you compare with other competitive exams and this is the section where many aspirants are not able to score minimum cut off marks. As you all read English books, chat with your friends in English and of course watch English movies. But you cannot get score good marks in English section. Most of the students face difficulty in this section. This is a test principally to determine candidate’s ability to remember main ideas and significant details. The most important questions from this section are on the topics such as Grammar, Comprehension, Error Correction, Vocabulary and Synonyms & Antonyms.

    Read English newspapers daily.

    Improve your vocabulary by knowing 10 new words everyday along with its Synonyms and Antonyms.
    Watch good English news channels.
    Can refer the book ‘Wren n Martin’.

General Awareness + Computer:
This is the most important section of IBPS PO Exam. This section acquires more importance because this is the only section which can be attempted quickly and at the same time, very high marks can be scored in this section. The most important questions from this section are on the topics such as Banking Knowledge,Current Affairs, Oscar Awards, Organizations and Headquarters, Important Days, Famous Persons and their Roles, Award Winners, Books and Authors Games and Cups and Abbreviations.The most important questions for Computer Knowledge are on the topics such as Computer History, Computers-Generations, Internet, Founders and Inventors, MS Office (MS Word, MS Excel, MS PPT, and MS Outlook), Operating System, Computer Hardware & Software and Abbreviations for Computer terms, Storage Devices,Computer organization & Microprocessor, Latest changes in Technology, Data Base Management Systems and Computer Networks.

Apart from this study material, few tips:

    Listen and read National news on daily basis.

    Go through the General Awareness books such as Competition Master, Competition Success Review or Pratiyogita Darpan on monthly basis.
    Study the last budget passed by the Central Government.
    Aware of all changes around the world 6-7 months before the date of the Exam.
    Daily interaction with computer will give you guys an additional advantage while attempting the questions of Professional Knowledge Section.

Some Key Points to crack this Exam:

    Keep Practicing – Practice as much as you can do for sections such as Data Interpretation and Reasoning as it will take time to solve questions of these sections. You have to be quick in solving mathematical calculations.

    Get the detailed information about the syllabus – There will be two papers, first is Objective type test and second is Descriptive type test. You need to have a look at the sections and their topics of both these papers so that you can start your preparation well
    Focus on each section – The selection process is based on the score of your exam in each section. Keep in mind that you have to clear the cut off marks of each of the sections.
    Get an idea of questions from previous year’s papers – Practice from previous year’s question papers will give a clear idea about the difficulty level of questions and pattern of question paper.
    Last time Revisions – After you have finished your course, go for one more reading. This will help you in memorizing the facts properly. It will be better if you prepare short notes as well. This helps in revision at a later stage when time is less.


Things to keep in mind while attempting the MAINS written exam

There is no set pattern to attempt the various sections of the exam. But based upon candidate experiences and the knowledge base provided by our team, you can try this to maximize results. You can attempt the sections in this order mentioned in parenthesis as follows
Reasoning-35 min (3rd)

GK and Computer awareness-20 min (1st)

English-25 min (2nd)

Quantitative aptitude-40 min (4th)
Second thing to keep in mind is, “NEVER OVER EXPECT”. Candidates make the greatest blunder when they try to attempt each and every question (remember, there is one fourth negative marking and every mark counts).
Don’t get stuck in a question as it will eat up all your time. Instead, try to solve those questions first which you can solve in one go as it will maximize your score. Once you are finished with all these questions, provided you have time left you can come back to the unsolved questions.
Your primary aim should be to clear the cutoff first. Satisfying your ego in solving one mathematical problem in a time span when you can solve 10 more questions is utter foolishness. Try to gather marks first, so that you could clear both the cut offs and then make an effort to score more.
One golden trick for English Section- Don’t run after Sentence rearrangement questions as they are very time consuming and even no guarantee that you will get it right.
Last but not the least, have faith in yourself. Don’t pay attention to rumors and never let anybody to discourage you during the course of preparation. Always remember, its you who is going to attempt the exam and its only you who can create the magic by hard work+smart work. So, anybody else’s opinion should not create an impact on your aim to be a top notch banking officer.

 Time Management Tips Are As Follows

    Practice with Stopwatch on your side: For any aspiring PO candidate it is a must to keep a stopwatch by their side while preparing. Apart from the tenacity of the questions, what matters is that of the allotted time for solving those questions. One needs to practice so well in the paper so that he/she can answer most number of questions that too keeping the accuracy factor in mind. This also helps you to improve your time and boosts your confidence just before the examination.

    Skip Questions that are troubling much: There are 200 questions in each of the paper, and if at any point it is felt by the candidate that a certain question is troubling them much, they should immediately move away from that particular question and try and solve other known ones. Rather than sticking to any particular question, it is advisable to move along.
    Go through Practice sets and Mock Question Papers: Mock question papers and practice sets can help the candidates to prepare for the examination effectively. By solving these sets you could have an idea of how many questions you are solving on the given time and try to improve that by applying and innovating newer techniques for solving problems through constant practice.
    Do not go for everything: You certainly didn’t want to get in trap of ‘getting everything’ under your belt. Thus, you should set a target for yourself while you are preparing for any paper and decide how many questions you are going to attempt with accuracy to be on top of anything. You should keep an eye on quality of your answers rather than the quantity as doing this you could also avoid negative markings which can take down your chances of getting through.



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